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2015 AIMPT - Biology
1.
Which one of the following matches is correct?
(1) Phytophthora
Aseptate mycelium
Basidiomycetes
(2) Alternaria
Sexual reproduction absent
Deuteromycetes
(3) Mucor
Reproduction by conjugation
Ascomycetes
(4) Agaricus
Parasitic fungus
Basidiomycetes
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
2.
Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements:
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes is sporophytic.
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte.
a) (A),(C) and (D)
b) (B),(C) and (D)
c) (A),(D) and (E)
d) (B),(C) and (E)
3.
In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living
a) Funaria
b) Marchantia
c) Pteris
d) Pinus
4.
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
a) Algin and carrageen are products of algae
b) Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
c) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
d) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
5.
The guts of cow and buffalo possess
a) Fucus spp.
b) Chlorella spp.
c) Methanogens.
d) Cyanobacteria.
6.
Male gametes are flagellated in
a) Polysiphonia
b) Anabaena
c) Ectocarpus
d) Spirogyra
7.
Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because
a) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
b) Cambium is absent
c) There are no vessels with perforations
d) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
8.
The figure below is the floral formula of
a) Allium
b) Sesbania
c) Petunia
d) Brassica
9.
A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of
a) Open vascular bundles
b) Scattered vascular bundles
c) Vasculature without cambium
d) Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem along the radius
10.
Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of
a) Tulip
b) Indigofera
c) Aloe
d) Tomato
11.
Perigynous flowers are found in
a) Guava
b) Cucumber
c) China rose
d) Rose
12.
Leaves become modified into spins in
a) Opuntia
b) Pea
c) Onion
d) Silk Cotton
13.
The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are
a) Cristae
b) Grana
c) Stroma lamellae
d) Stroma
14.
The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are
a) Metacentric
b) Acrocentric
c) Telocentric
d) Sub-metacentric
15.
Select the correct matching in the following pairs
a) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids
b) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids
c) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
d) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids
16.
True nucleus is absent in
a) Anabaena
b) Mucor
c) Vaucheria
d) Volvox
17.
Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?
a) Phosphate granule
b) Cyanophycean granule
c) Glycogen granule
d) Polysome
18.
Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by
a) Pulling it upward
b) Pulling and pushing it, respectively
c) Pushing it upward
d) Pushing and pulling it, respectively
19.
Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include
a) Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
b) Calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper
c) Potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron
d) Magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc
20.
What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side to bend toward the source of light as it grows?
a) Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis
b) Green plants seek because they are phototropic
c) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster
d) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there
21.
In a ring girdled plant
a) The shoot dies first
b) The root dies first
c) The shoot and root die together
d) Neither root nor shoot will die
22.
Typical growth curve in plants is
a) Sigmoid
b) Linear
c) Stair–steps shaped
d) Parabolic
23.
Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movements?
a) Transpiration
b) Potassium influx and efflux
c) Starch hydrolysis
d) Guard cell photosynthesis
24.
The hilum is a scar on the
a) Seed, where funicle was attached
b) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
c) Fruit, where style was present
d) Seed, where micropyle was present
25.
Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?
a) Geitonogamy
b) Xenogamy
c) Apogamy
d) Cleistogamy
26.
Which one of the following statement is not true?
a) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they used in the form of tablets and syrups
b) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people
c) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete four odour to attract them
d) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers
27.
Transmission tissue is characteristics feature of
a) Hollow style
b) Solid style
c) Dry stigma
d) Wet stigma
28.
In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through
a) Rhizome
b) Offsets
c) Bulbils
d) Runners
29.
Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?
a) Colour and large size of flower
b) Nectar and pollen grains
c) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
d) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
30.
How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studies by Mendel in his experiments?
a) Five
b) Six
c) Eight
d) Seven
31.
Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually reproducing organism?
a) Transduction
b) Chromosomal aberrations
c) Genetic drift
d) Recombination
32.
A technique of micropropagation is
a) Somatic hybridisation
b) Somatic embryogenesis
c) Protoplast fusion
d) Embryo rescue
33.
The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called
a) Inversion
b) Duplication
c) Translocation
d) Crossing over
34.
Multiple alleles are present
a) On different chromosomes
b) At different loci on the same chromosome
c) At the same locus of the chromosome
d) On non-sister chromatids
35.
Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services?
a) Bio-safety committee
b) Indian council of agricultural research
c) Genetic Engineering Approval committee
d) Research committee on Genetic Manipulation
36.
In BT cotton, the BT toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to
a) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
b) Acidic pH of the insect gut
c) Action of gut microorganisms
d) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
37.
The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to
a) Fungi
b) Bacteria
c) Insects
d) Herbicides
38.
DNA is not present in
a) Chloroplast
b) Ribosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Mitochondria
39.
Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of protoplasts?
a) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
b) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
c) IAA and kinetin
d) IAA and gibberellins
40.
The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in
a) Poland
b) South Africa
c) Peru
d) Qatar
41.
Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as
a) Divergence
b) Stratification
c) Zonation
d) Pyramid
42.
In which of the following both pairs have correct combination?
a) In situ conservation : National Park
Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden
b) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation
Ex situ conservation : Wildlife sanctuary
c) In situ conservation : Seed Bank
Ex situ conservation : National Park
d) In situ conservation : Tissue culture
Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves
43.
Secondary succession takes place on/in
a) Bare rock
b) Degraded forest
c) Newly created pond
d) Newly cooled lava
44.
The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called
a) Gross primary productivity
b) Standing state
c) Net primary productivity
d) Standing crop
45.
In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed
a) Net primary productivity
b) Gross primary productivity
c) Secondary productivity
d) Net productivity
46.
Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?
a) Segmentation
b) Bilateral symmetry
c) Exoskeleton
d) Eyes
47.
Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity
a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Enterobius vermicularis
c) Trichinella spiralis
d) Ascaris lumbricoides
48.
Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?
Characteristics
Class
(1) Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two pairs of limbs
Mammalia
(2) Mouth ventral : grills without operculum; skin with placoid scales; persistent notochord
Chondrichthyes
(3) Sucking and circular mouth; Jaws absent integument without scales; paired appendages
Cyclostomata
(4) Body covered with feathers; skin moist and glandular; forelimbs form wings; lungs with air sacs
Aves
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
49.
Which of the following animals is not viviparous?
a) Flying fox (bat)
b) Elephant
c) Platypus
d) Whale
50.
Erythropoiesis starts in
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Red bone marrow
51.
The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by
a) Cementing glue
b) Muscular tissue
c) Arthrodial membrane
d) Cartilage
52.
Nuclear envelope is a derivative of
a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b) Membrane of Golgi complex
c) Microtubules
d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
53.
Cytochromes are found in
a) Matrix of mitochondria
b) Outer wall of mitochondria
c) Cristae of mitochondria
d) Lysosomes
54.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
a) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme–inhibitor complex
b) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme
c) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate breakdown of the enzyme–substrate complex
d) The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate
55.
Select the correct option:
I
II
(a)
Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes
I
Anaphase-II
(b)
Synthesis of RNA and protein
II
Zygotene
(c)
Action of enzyme recombinase
III
G2-Phase
(d)
Centromeres do not separate but chromatids move toward opposite poles
IV
Anaphase-I
V
Pachytene
a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
b) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
c) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
56.
A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has
a) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
b) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA
c) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
d) Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
57.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen
b) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus
c) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete HCl
d) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase
58.
Gastric juice of infants contains
a) Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
b) Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
c) Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
d) Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
59.
When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?
a) Falling `O_2` concentration
b) Rising `CO_2` concentration
c) Falling `CO_2` concentration
d) Rising `CO_2` and falling `O_2` concentration
60.
Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during
a) Systole of the left atrium
b) Diastole of the right ventricle
c) Systole of the left ventricle
d) Diastole of the right atrium
61.
Which one of the following is correct?
a) Plasma = Blood - Lymphocytes
b) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
c) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
d) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
62.
Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in
a) More diluted urine
b) More concentrated urine
c) No change in quality and quantity of urine
d) No urine formation
63.
Sliding filament theory can best explained as
a) When myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten, while Myosin filament do not shorten
b) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
c) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
d) When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten, while Actin filaments do not shorten
64.
Glenoid cavity articulates
a) Clavicle with acromion
b) Scapula with acromion
c) Clavicle with scapula
d) Humerus with scapula
65.
Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?
a) Medulla oblongata – Homoeostatic control
b) Cerebellum – Language comprehension
c) Corpus callosum – Communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
d) Cerebrum – Calculation and contemplation
66.
A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of
a) Cochlea
b) Vestibular apparatus
c) Tectorial membrane
d) Organ of Corti
67.
A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is
a) Melatonin
b) Calcitonin
c) Epinephrine
d) Cortisol
68.
Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
a) Alcohol
b) Caffeine
c) Renin
d) Atrial-natriuretic factor
69.
Capacitation refers to changes in the
a) Sperm before fertilisation
b) Ovum before fertilisation
c) Ovum after fertilisation
d) Sperm after fertilisation
70.
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
a) Increase in oestrogen and progesterone ratio
b) Synthesis of prostaglandins
c) Release of oxytocin
d) Release of prolactin
71.
Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Human immunodeficiency virus
c) Chikungunya virus
d) Ebola virus
72.
Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?
a) Primary polar body
b) Spermatid
c) Spermatogonia
d) Secondary polar body
73.
Hysterectomy is surgical removal of
a) Uterus
b) Prostate gland
c) Vas deferens
d) Mammary glands
74.
Which of the following is not sexually transmitted disease?
a) Syphilis
b) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Encephalitis
75.
An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes was born due to
a) Formation of abnormal sperms in the father
b) Formation of abnormal ova in the mother
c) Fusion of two ova and one sperm
d) Fusion of two sperms and one ovum
76.
Alleles are
a) Different phenotype
b) True breeding homozygotes
c) Different molecular forms of a gene
d) Heterozygotes
77.
A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups of their offspring?
a) A and B only
b) A, B and AB only
c) A, B, AB and O
d) O only
78.
Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac I gene product is
a) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
b) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription
c) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
d) Feedback inhibition because excess of β - galactosidase can switch off transcription
79.
In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in the DNA are
a) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
b) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
c) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
d) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
80.
Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
a) Homo erectus
b) Homo sapiens
c) Homo neanderthalensis
d) Homo habilis
81.
A population will not exist in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium is
a) Individuals mate selectively
b) There are no mutations
c) There is no migration
d) The population is large
82.
Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:
(a)
Tuberculosis
I
harmless virus
(b)
Whooping cough
II
Inactivated toxin
(c)
Diphtheria
III
Killed bacteria
(d)
Polio
IV
harmless bacteria
a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
83.
HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
a) B-lymphocytes
b) Leucocytes
c) Helper T-lymphocytes
d) Thrombocytes
84.
To active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon
a) Water is pure
b) Water is highly polluted
c) Water is less polluted
d) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
85.
High value of BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) indicates that
a) Water is pure
b) Water is highly polluted
c) Water is less polluted
d) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
86.
Most animals are tree dwellers in a
a) Coniferous forest
b) Thorn woodland
c) Temperate deciduous forest
d) Tropical rainforest
87.
The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that
a) Both plant populations in this habitat decreased
b) Population B competed more successfully for food than population A
c) Population A produced more offspring than population B
d) Population A consumed the members of population B
88.
Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as
a) In situ conservation of biodiversity
b) Advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity
c) In situ conservation by sacred groves
d) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
89.
Rachel Carson’s famous book ‘Silent spring’ is related to
a) Pesticide pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Population explosion
d) Ecosystem management
90.
Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
a) Increased skin cancer
b) Reduced immune system
c) Damage to eyes
d) Increased liver cancer
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