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2013 AIMPT - Biology
1.
Select the wrong statement:
a) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour
b) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
c) In Oomycetes female gemete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and nonmotile
d) Chlamydomomas Exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy
2.
Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
a) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens
b) Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference
c) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals
d) Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens
3.
Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in
a) Chlamydomonas
b) Spirogyra
c) Volvox
d) Fucus
4.
Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of
a) Pinus
b) Cycas
c) Equisetum
d) Psilotum
5.
Megasporangium is equivalent to
a) Embryo sac
b) Fruit
c) Nucellus
d) Ovule
6.
Read the following statements (A-E) and answer the question which follows them
(A) In liverworts, mosses, and ferns gametophytes are free-living
(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous
(D) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaboratethan that in mosses
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
7.
Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous flower?
a) Six
b) Ten
c) Fifteen
d) Eighteen
8.
Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of
a) Medullary rays
b) Xylem parenchyma
c) Endodermis
d) Pericycle
9.
In China rose the flowers are
a) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
b) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation
c) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
d) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
10.
Lenticels are involved in
a) Transpiration
b) Gaseous exchange
c) Food transport
d) Photosynthesis
11.
Age of a tree can be estimated by
a) Its height and girth
b) Biomass
c) Number of annual rings
d) Diameter of its heartwood
12.
Seed coat is not thin, membranous in
a) Maize
b) Coconut
c) Groundnut
d) Gram
13.
Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
a) Transient but stable
b) Permanent but unstable
c) Transient and unstable
d) Permanent and stable
14.
A phosphoglyceride is always made up of
a) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
b) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
c) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
d) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule
15.
Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are
a) Heterocysts
b) Basal bodies
c) Pneumatophores
d) Chromatophores
16.
A major site for synthesis of lipids is
a) RER
b) SER
c) Symplast
d) Nucleoplasm
17.
The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called
a) Equatorial plate
b) Kinetochore
c) Bivalent
d) Axoneme
18.
The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products. Arrows numbered 4,8, and 12 can all be
a) NADH
b) ATP
c) `H_2O`
d) `FAD^+` or `FADH_2`
19.
The most abundant intracellular cation is
a) `Na^+`
b) `Ca^++`
c) `H^+`
d) `K^+`
20.
During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by
a) Ethylene
b) Cytokinin
c) ABA
d) Gibberellin
21.
Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport ?
a) Requirement of special membrane proteins
b) High selectivity
c) Transport saturation
d) Uphill transport
22.
The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is
a) `NO_2^-`
b) Ammonia
c) `NO_3^-`
d) Glutamate
23.
Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
a) Glucose-6-phosphate
b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
c) Pyruvic acid
d) Acetyl CoA
24.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
b) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
c) Endothecium produces the microspores
d) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
25.
Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
a) Longer viability of seeds
b) Prolonged dormancy
c) New genetic combination leading to variation
d) Large biomass
26.
Meiosis takes place in
a) Meiocyte
b) Conidia
c) Gemmule
d) Megaspore
27.
Advantage of cleistogamy is
a) Higher genetic variability
b) More vigorous offspring
c) No dependence on pollinators
d) Vivipary
28.
Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of
a) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
b) Stamen and carpel on the same plant
c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
d) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
29.
Perisperm differs from endosperm in
a) Being a haploid tissue
b) Having no reserve food
c) Being a diploid tissue
d) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms
30.
Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?
a) The genes may be on different chromosomes
b) The genes are tightly linked
c) The genes show independent assortment
d) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis
31.
Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as
a) Genetic flow
b) Genetic drift
c) Random mating
d) Genetic load
32.
If two persons with 'AB' blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as 'A' blood group : 'AB' blood group : 'B' blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group individuals. This is an example of
a) Codominance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Partial dominance
d) Complete dominance
33.
The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called
a) Natural selection
b) Convergent evolution
c) Non-random evolution
d) Adaptive radiation
34.
The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by
a) Random mating
b) Lack of migration
c) Lack of mutations
d) Lack of random mating
35.
Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?
a) Maize
b) Cotton
c) Brinjal
d) Soybean
36.
A good producer of citric acid is
a) Aspergillus
b) Pseudomonas
c) Clostridium
d) Saccharomyces
37.
DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by
a) Centrifugation
b) Polymerase chain reaction
c) Electrophoresis
d) Restriction mapping
38.
Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
a) Bacteria - Lysozyme
b) Plant cells - Cellulase
c) Algae - Methylase
d) Fungi – Chitinase
39.
The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of
a) Non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase
b) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
c) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
d) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
40.
Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?
a) Archaebacteria
b) Eubacteria
c) Blue-green algae
d) Saprophytic fungi
41.
Natural reservoir of phosphorus is
a) Sea water
b) Animal bones
c) Rock
d) Fossils
42.
Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by
a) Producer
b) Parasite
c) Consumer
d) Decomposer
43.
Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?
a) Field gene banks
b) Seed banks
c) Shifting cultivation
d) Botanical Gardens
44.
Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at
a) CoP – 3
b) CoP – 5
c) CoP – 6
d) CoP – 4
45.
Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?
a) Algae
b) Lichens
c) Fungi
d) Mosses and Ferns
46.
Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one characteristics (Column II) and the phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs.
Column I
Column II
Column III
(1)
Petromyzon
Ectoparasite
Cyclostomia
(2)
Ichthy
Terrestial
Reptila
(3)
Limulus
Body Covered by chitinous exoskeleton
Pisces
(4)
Adamsia
Radially symmetrical
Porifera
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
47.
Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?
a) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish, – Pisces
b) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta
c) House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta
d) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber – Echinodermata
48.
Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
a) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
b) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
c) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
d) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
49.
One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is
a) Cuttlefish
b) Silverfish
c) Pufferfish
d) Flying fish
50.
The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
a) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band
b) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
c) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
d) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band
51.
What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?
a) Mandibles become harder
b) Anal cerci develop
c) Both fore wings and hind wings develop
d) Labium develops
52.
The Golgi complex plays a major role
a) In trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy
b) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates
c) As energy transferring organelles
d) In post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipid
53.
Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?
a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins
b) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
c) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
54.
Macro molecule chitin is
a) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
b) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
c) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
d) Simple polysaccharide
55.
The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are
a) Proteins
b) Nucleic acids
c) Carbohydrates
d) Vitamins
56.
A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics.
a) (1) Telophase - Nuclear envelop reforms golgi complex reforms
b) (2) Late Anaphase - Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, golgi complex not present
c) (3) Cytokinesis - Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughtercells
d) (4) Telophase - Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet
57.
Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and mechanism in column II:
a) (1) Glycine, glucose - Small intestine ,active absorption
b) (2) Fructose, Na+ - Small intestin passive absorption
c) (3) Glycerol, fatty acids - Duodenum ,move as chilomicrons
d) (4) Cholesterol, maltose - Large intestine ,active absorption
58.
A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of
a) Deficiency of iodine in diet
b) Low secretion of growth hormone
c) Cancer of the thyroid gland
d) Over secretion of pars distalis
59.
The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.
a) A - trachea - long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
b) B-pleural membrane - surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
c) C-Alveoli - thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases
d) D-Lower end of lungs - diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
60.
Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.
a) A – Pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from body parts, `PO_2` = 60 mm Hg
b) B – Pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs, `PO_2` = 90 mm Hg
c) C – Vena Cava – takes blood from body parts to right auricle, `PCO_2` = 45 mm Hg
d) D – Dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to body parts, `PO_2` = 95 mm Hg
61.
The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the
a) Contraction of both the atria
b) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
c) Beginning of the systole
d) End of systole
62.
Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/ or functions
a) A-Adrenal gland-located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown
b) B-Pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle
c) C-Medulla - inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons
d) D-Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons
63.
Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans
a) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.
b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
c) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.
d) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.
64.
The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is
a) (1) Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements - Knee joints
b) (2) Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion - Skull bones
c) (3) Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones - Joint between atlas and axis
d) (4) Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement - Gliding joint between carpals
65.
A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D
a) A – Receptor; C - Synaptic vesicles
b) B - Synaptic connection; D - K
c) A – Neurotransmitter; B - Synaptic cleft
d) C – Neurotransmitter; D - Ca+
66.
Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics
a) A – Retina – contains photo receptors – rods and cones.
b) B – Blind spot – has only a few rods and cones.
c) C – Aqueous chamber – reflects the light which does not pass through the lens.
d) D – Choroid – its anterior part forms ciliary body.
67.
Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the endocrine system?
a) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
b) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones.
c) Non - nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones.
d) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
68.
Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/ deficiency symptom
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
69.
What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
a) Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
b) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
c) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
d) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
70.
Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of
a) Progesterone
b) FSH
c) Oxytocin
d) Vasopressin
71.
Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It
a) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo.
b) Secretes estrogen.
c) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo.
d) Secretes oxytocin during parturition.
72.
One of the legal methods of birth control is
a) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
b) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
c) By having coitus at the time of day break
d) By a premature ejaculation during coitus
73.
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
a) Klinefelter syndrome
b) Sex of the foetus
c) Down syndrome
d) Jaundice
74.
Artificial insemination means
a) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
b) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
c) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
d) Introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly into the ovary
75.
Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents ?
a) Incomplete dominance
b) Law of dominance
c) Inheritance of one gene
d) Co-dominance
76.
The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is
a) It is a sex-linked disease
b) It is a recessive disease
c) It is a dominant disease
d) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
77.
If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
a) No chance
b) 50%
c) 25%
d) 100%
78.
The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C
a) A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson
b) A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff
c) A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick
d) A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin
79.
Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
a) β -galactosidase
b) Lactose permease
c) Transacetylase
d) Lactose permease and transacetylase
80.
According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to
a) Intraspecific competition.
b) Interspecific competition.
c) Competition within closely related species.
d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.
81.
The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of
a) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
b) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
c) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
d) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
82.
Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
a) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
b) Eating imperfectly cooked port
c) Tse-tse fly
d) Mosquito bite
83.
The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by
a) T-lymphocytes
b) B-lymphocytes
c) Thrombocytes
d) Erythrocytes
84.
In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection(of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called
a) Selection of superior recombinants
b) Cross-hybridisation among the selected parents
c) Evaluation and selection of parents
d) Germplasm collection
85.
During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include
a) Methane, hydrogensulphide, carbon dioxide
b) Methane, oxygen, hydrogensulphide
c) Hydrogensulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
d) Hydrogensulphide, nitrogen, methane
86.
A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is
a) 10
b) 15
c) 05
d) Zero
87.
Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
a) Fragmentation - Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
b) Humification - Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate
c) Catabolism - Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
d) Leaching - Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
88.
A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is
a) Ectoparasitism
b) Symbiosis
c) Commensalism
d) Amensalism
89.
Global warming can be controlled by
a) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel
b) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel
c) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population
d) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage
90.
The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in
a) 1975
b) 1981
c) 1985
d) 1990
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