This page requires a JavaScript-enabled browser
Instructions on how to enable your browser are contained in the help file.
2014 AIMPT - Biology
1.
Which one of the following shows isogamy with non – flagellated gamets ?
a) Sargassum
b) Eatocarpus
c) Ulothrix
d) Spirogyra
2.
Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on
a) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
b) Mode of reproduction
c) Mode of nutrition
d) Complexity of body organization
3.
Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ?
a) Morchella esculenta
b) Amanita muscaria
c) Neurospora sp.
d) Ustilago sp.
4.
Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in
a) Cell membrane structure
b) Mode of nutrition
c) Cell shape
d) Mode of reproduction
5.
Which one of the following is wrong about chara?
a) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
b) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
d) Globule is male reproductive structure
6.
Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?
a) Marchantia
b) Riccia
c) Funaria
d) Sphagnum
7.
Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in
a) Apple
b) Banana
c) Tomato
d) Potato
8.
When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as
a) Vexillary
b) Imbricate
c) Twisted
d) Valvate
9.
You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?
a) Secondary xylem
b) Secondary phloem
c) Protoxylem
d) Cortical cells
10.
Which one of the following statement is correct ?
a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic
b) Mango is parthenocarpic fruit
c) A proteinaceous aleurnone layer is present in maize grain
d) A sterile pistil is called a stainamode
11.
Tracherids differ from other tracheray elements in
a) Having casparian strips
b) Being imperforate
c) Lacking nucleus
d) Being lignified
12.
An example of edible underground stem is
a) Carrot
b) Groundnut
c) Sweet potato
d) Potato
13.
Which structure perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
a) Nucleoid
b) Ribosomes
c) Cell wall
d) Mesosomes
14.
The solid linear cyroskeltal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as
a) Microtubules
b) Micorfilaments
c) Intermediate filaments
d) Lamins
15.
The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by
a) Mitrochondria
b) Vacuoles
c) Plastics
d) Ribosomes
16.
During which phase (s) of cell cycle, amound of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the intial amount is denoted as 2C?
a) G0 and G1
b) G1 and S
c) Only G2
d) G2 and M
17.
Match the following and select the correct answer :
(a)
Centriole
I
Infoldings in mitochondria
(b)
Chlorophyll
II
Thaylakoids
(c)
Cristae
III
Nucleic acids
(d)
Ribozymes
IV
basal body cilia or flagella
a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
18.
Dr.F went noted that if coleptile were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly- cut – coleptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment ?
a) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin
b) It is the basis for quantitive determination of small amounts of growth –promoting substances
c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin
d) It demonstartaed polar movement of auxins
19.
Deficiency symotoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in
a) Senescent leaves
b) Young leaves
c) Roots
d) Buds
20.
In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released ?
a) Aerobic respiration in plants
b) Aerobic respiration in animals
c) Alcoholic fermimentation
d) Lactate fermination
21.
Anoxygric photosynthesis Is characterstics of
a) Rhodospirillum
b) Spirogyra
c) Chlamudomonas
d) Ulva
22.
A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become while – coloured like alinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
a) Mutated
b) Embolised
c) Etiolated
d) Defoliated
23.
Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?
a) Absciessic acid
b) Ethyelene
c) GA3
d) Indole acetic acid
24.
Geitonogamy involves
a) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant.
b) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower.
c) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population.
d) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population.
25.
Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in
a) Pteris
b) Funaria
c) Lilium
d) Pinus
26.
An aggregate fruit is one which develops from
a) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
b) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynocium
c) Complete infloroscene
d) Multicarpellary superior ovary
27.
Pollen tablets are available in tha market for
a) In vitro fertilization
b) Breeding programmes
c) Supplementing food
d) Ex situ conservation
28.
Function of filiform apparatus is to
a) Recongnize the suitable pollen at stigma
b) Stimulate division of generative cell
c) Produce necter
d) Guide the entry of pollen tube
29.
Non – albuminous seed is produced in
a) Maize
b) Castor
c) Wheat
d) Pea
30.
Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomers ?
a) Polio virus
b) Tobbaco mosaic virus
c) Measles virus
d) Retrovirus
31.
Which one of the following is wrongely matched
a) Transcription – Writing information From DNA to t – RNA
b) Translation – Using information in m – RNA to make protein
c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
d) Operon - Structural genes, operator and promoter
32.
Transoformation was discovered by
a) Meselson and stahl
b) Hershey and chase
c) Griffith
d) Watson and Crick
33.
Fruit colour in squash is an example of
a) Recessive epistasis
b) Dominant epistasis
c) Complemetary genes
d) Inhibitory genes
34.
Viruses here
a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat
b) Prokaryotic nucleus
c) Single chromosome
d) Both DNA and RNA
35.
The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is
a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Thyroxin
d) Progesterone
36.
An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridization technique does not use
a) Electrophoresis
b) Blotting
c) Autoradiography
d) PCR
37.
In vitro propagation in plants is characterized by
a) PCR and RAPD
b) Northern blotting
c) Electrophoresis and HPLC
d) Microscopy
38.
An alga which can be employed as food for human being is
a) Ulothrix
b) Chlorells
c) Spirogyra
d) Polysiphnia
39.
Which vector can clone only small fragment of DNA ?
a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
b) Yeast artificial chromosome
c) Plasmid
d) Cosmid
40.
An example of ex situ conservation is
a) National park
b) Seed Bank
c) Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Sacred Grove
41.
A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the
a) Trees are very healthy
b) Trees are heavily infested
c) Location is highly polluted
d) Location is not polluted
42.
Match the following and select the correct option:
(a)
Earthworm
I
Pioneer species
(b)
Succession
II
Detritivore
(c)
Ecosystem service
III
Natality
(d)
Population growth
IV
Pollination
a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
43.
A species facing exrtremely high risk of extinction in the immediate fucture is called
a) Vulnerble
b) Endemic
c) Critically Endangered
d) Extinct
44.
The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called
a) Ionosphere
b) Mesosphere
c) Stratosphere
d) Troposphere
45.
The organization which publishes the Red list of species is
a) ICFRE
b) IUCN
c) UNEP
d) WWF
46.
Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species
a) Echinoderms
b) Ctenophora
c) Cephalochordata
d) Cnidaria
47.
Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks of cells wall ?
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Sea – Fan (Gorgonia)
c) Saccharmyces
d) Blue – Green algae
48.
Planaria posses high capacity of
a) Metamorphosis
b) Regeneration
c) Alteration of generation
d) Bioluminscene
49.
A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is
a) Pristis
b) Torpedo
c) Trygon
d) Scoliodon
50.
Choose the correctly matched pair
a) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
d) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue
51.
Choose the correctly matched pair:
a) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium
b) Moist surface of buccal cavity - Glandular epithelium
c) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium
d) Inner surface of bronchioles – squamous epithelium
52.
In ‘s’ pahse of the cell cycle
a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
b) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
c) Chromosome number is increased.
d) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.
53.
The motile bacteria are able to move by
a) Fimbriae
b) Flagella
c) Cilia
d) Pili
54.
Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action
a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
b) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
c) A non – competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distict from that which binds the substrate
d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
55.
Which one of the following is a non – reducing carbohydrate?
a) Maltose
b) Sucrose
c) Lactose
d) Ribose 5 – phosphate
56.
The enzyme recombines is required at which stage of meiosis
a) Pachytene
b) Zygotene
c) Diplotene
d) Daikinesis
57.
The intial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by ?
a) Lipase
b) Trypsin
c) Rennin
d) Pepsin
58.
Fructose is abosorbed bed into the blood through mucosa cells of intenstine by the process called
a) Active transport
b) Faciliatated transport
c) Simple diffuision
d) Co-transport mechanism
59.
Approximately seventy percent of carbon – dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
a) As bicarbonate ions
b) In the form of dissolved gas molecules
c) By binding to R.B.C
d) As carbamino – haeoglobin
60.
Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has
a) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
b) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
c) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
d) Both A and antigens in the plasma but no antibodies
61.
How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?
a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
62.
Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reasorption in te distal convoluted tubule ?
a) Increase in aldosterone levels
b) Increase in antidieuretic hormone levels
c) Decrease in aldosterone levels
d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
63.
Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system :
Type of joint
Example
(1)
Carilaginous joint
-
Between frontal and paraiental
(2)
Pivot joint
-
Between third and fourth cervical Vertebrae
(3)
Hinge joint
-
Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(4)
Gliding joint
-
Between carpals
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
64.
Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at
a) The neuromuscular junction
b) The transverse tubules
c) The myofibril
d) The sacroplasmic reticulum
65.
Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt
a) Short – term memory
b) Co- ordination during locomotion
c) Executive function, such as decision making
d) Regulation of body temperature
66.
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments
b) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodpsin while cones have three different photopigments
c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C
d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only
67.
Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function
a) Oxytocin – posterior pituatory, growth and maintenance of mammary glands
b) Melatonin – pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle
c) Progesterone – corpus – luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs
d) Atrial natriuretic factor – ventricular wall increases the blood pressure
68.
Fight – or – flight reactions cause activation of
a) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate.
b) The kidney, leading tu suppression of reninangiotensin – aldeosterone pathway.
c) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene.
d) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels.
69.
The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is
a) Urethra
b) Ureter
c) Vas deferens
d) Vasa efferentia
70.
The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce
a) Estrogen only
b) Progesterone
c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
d) Relaxin only
71.
Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female
a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium
b) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implanatation of the embryo
c) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone
d) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium
72.
Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
a) Small party of fallopian tube is removed or tied up
b) Ovaries are removd surgically
c) Small party of vas deferens is removed or tied up
d) Uterus is removed surgically
73.
Which of the following is a hormone releasing intra Uterine Device (IUD)
a) Multiload 375
b) LNG – 20
c) Cervical cap
d) Vault
74.
Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of
a) Ovum into fallopian tube
b) Zygote into the fallopian tube
c) Zygote into the uterus
d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube
75.
A man whose father was colur blind marries a woman who had a colour bline mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ?
a) 25%
b) 0%
c) 50%
d) 75%
76.
In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa the and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this date, the frequency of allele a in the population is
a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
77.
A human female with Turner’s syndrome
a) Has 45 chromosome with XO
b) Has one additional X chromosome
c) Exhibits male characters
d) Is able to produce children with normal husband
78.
Select the correct option :
Direction of RNA Synthesis
Direction of reading of the template DNA strand
(1)
5’ – 3’
3’ – 5’
(2)
3’ – 5’
5’ – 3’
(3)
5’ – 3’
5’ – 3’
(4)
3’ – 5’
3’ – 5’
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
79.
Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are
a) T – DNA
b) BAC and YAC
c) Expression Vectors
d) T/A Cloning Vectors
80.
Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking forelimbs of whale used n swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of
a) Analogus organs
b) Adaptive radiation
c) Homologous organs
d) Convergent evolution
81.
Which one of the following are analogues structures ?
a) Wings of Bat and wings of Pigeon
b) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man
c) Thorns of Bouganvillea and Tendrills of Cucurbita
d) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse
82.
Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
a) Hallucinogen
b) Depressant
c) Stimulant
d) Pain – killer
83.
At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symtoms of AIDS ?
a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
b) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
c) When HIV damages large number of helper T – Lymphocytes
d) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
84.
To obtain virus – free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture techinique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
a) Apical meristem only
b) Palisade parenchyma
c) Both apical and axillary meristem
d) Epidermis only
85.
What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?
a) Methane and CO2 only
b) Methane, Hydrogen, sulphide and CO2
c) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O2
d) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
86.
Just as a person moving from Delhi to shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to
a) Western Ghat
b) Meghalaya
c) Corbett National Park
d) Keolado National Park
87.
Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D) identify the blanks.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
88.
Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
89.
A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
a) Gases like suplhur dioxide
b) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
c) Gases like ozone and methane
d) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
90.
If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?
`Plant -> mice -> snake -> peacock`
a) 0.02 J
b) 0.002 J
c) 0.2 J
d) 0.0002 J
This is more feedback!
This is the feedback!
feedback!
Back to Top